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From: Peter Randall <prandall at networx.com.au> on 1997.11.11 at 15:00:38(1605)|
Having two large tubers of what I'm quite sure are Amorphophallus
dunnii developing flowers, one some twentyfour hours ahead of the
other I thought to myself it should be quite easy to use the pollen
from the first to pollinate the second as the flower development
timing seemed to be just about perfect for a reproductive effort.
The first inflorescence was very much a "young man flower" being
very strong and erect but the second which opened a day or so later I
guess could be described as an "old man flower". The spadix had
started to collapse even before the spathe opened. (such is life !)
Wasn't overly impressed by this but still attempted the transfer
of pollen from the first to the second using a small paint brush. Now
some three weeks later the tops of the spadix and the spaths have died
wrapping the top of the still very green stems in dead dried tissue.
Given that the stems are still very green some three weeks later
it appears that two fruits are developing which seems to raise the odd
question or two.
If I don't have this back to front the female part of the flowers|
are ready for pollination before the male produces pollen (it's one
way or the other) so how did the first flower get to be pollinated ?
If the male flower produces after the female then there wouldn't
have been pollen on the second to pollinate the first and if the first
flower pollinated itself why won't they do this when you only have a
singe inflorescence to work with ?
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